1. What defense can an employer use
to a charge of sexual harassment?
·
The harassed employee was not made
aware of the company's antiharassment policies.
·
The harassed employee took advantage
of the preventive measures provided by the company but still could not avoid
being harassed.
·
The employer does not have any
complaint mechanisms for employees who are
harassed.
·
The employer used reasonable care to
prevent and correct the sexually harassing behavior.
2. Choose the correct statement
about the Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA).
·
It is exclusively created to
regulate air pollution standards.
·
It has the power to initiate
judicial trials in case of violation of environmental
laws.
·
It does not enforce environmental
laws related to the protection of
wetlands.
·
It can enforce federal environmental
regulations but cannot make regulations on its own.
3. What is "riba" in the
context of Islamic law?
·
It is a compilation of decisions of
the prophet.
·
It refers to the making of unearned
profits.
·
It is the doctrine of proper
behavior.
·
It refers to independent reasoning.
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4. The state of Oriel, Selenasia,
enacts a law that imposes a 40 percent tax on automobiles that are made outside
of Selenasia and sold in the state. However, Oriel does not impose this tax on
Selenasian-made automobiles that are sold in Oriel. This scenario resembles a
violation of which clause of the U.S.
Constitution?
·
The Multilateral Treaty
Clause
·
The Bilateral Treaty
Clause
·
The Foreign Commerce
Clause
·
The Treaty Clauses
5. Teledor Inc. and Comunika Inc.
are two competing cellphone manufacturers. Jane, a customer at Teledor, is told
by an employee that Comunika phones have weak battery back-up and are very
prone to damage. The employee makes these remarks even though he knows that
they are completely false. Jane, who has been contemplating between Teledor and
Comunika, is influenced by what she hears and purchases a Teledor phone. What
kind of intentional tort should be used against Teledor in this
scenario?
·
Malicious
prosecution
·
Disparagement
·
Battery
·
Appropriation
6. Identify an accurate statement
about res ipsa loquitur, a special negligence doctrine.
·
It applies to cases in which
injuries that occurred were not foreseeable.
·
It applies to cases in which the
plaintiff also contributed to the
negligence.
·
It applies to cases in which it can
be assumed that the defendant was in control of the situation in which the
injuries occurred.
·
It requires the plaintiff to
demonstrate how exactly the situation arose out of the negligence of the
plaintiff.
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7. Identify an accurate statement
about the doctrine of comparative
negligence.
·
A person who is partially
responsible for causing his or her own injuries cannot file a suit against the
other party who partly caused the injuries.
·
A plaintiff who is partially
responsible for causing his or her own injuries cannot recover damages from the
defendant.
·
A plaintiff who is partially
responsible for causing his or her own injuries can recover a proportion of the
damages from the defendant.
·
A plaintiff who is partially
responsible for causing his or her own injuries can recover all the damages
from the defendant.
8. What is true about the
applicability of strict liability?
·
It cannot be applied to products
that are defectively manufactured.
·
It can be applied to sellers who
fail to warn of generally known dangers.
·
It can be applied to products that
are defectively packaged.
·
It cannot be applied to products
that were not supported by sufficient instructions.
9. Which statement best describes an
injunction as an equitable remedy?
·
It requires a breaching party to pay
damages to the injured party for both actual and foreseeable
losses.
·
It orders a breaching party to
perform the acts promised in a
contract.
·
It prohibits a party from performing
a particular act that may cause injury to another
party.
·
It allows a court to change the
terms of a contract to make them true to the parties' intentions.
Complete paper here LAW 531 Individual Assignment
10. Identify the true statement in
the context of a franchise
arrangement.
·
The franchisee can sell the
franchisor's products but can never manufacture
them.
·
The franchisor licenses the
franchisee to use the former's trademarks.
·
The franchisee can manufacture the
franchisor's products but can never distribute them directly to
consumers.
·
The franchisor is essentially the
owner of the franchisee.
11. Identify an accurate statement
about distributional interest in the context of limited liability companies
(LLCs).
·
A transferee of a distributional
interest receives all distributions from the LLC to which the transferor belonged.
·
A member's distributional interest
can be transferred completely, or partly.
·
A transferee of a distributional
interest automatically becomes a member of the
LLC.
·
A member who transfers his or her
distributional interest will no longer be liable for the debts and obligations
of the LLC.
12. What is true about consideration
in the context of
contracts?
·
It also encompasses performances and
services.
·
It is exclusively in the form of
tangible payments such as money or property.
·
It is typically included in gift
promises.
·
It is an optional component of a
written contract that parties can choose to omit.
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13. What does a current plaintiff
need to prove to succeed in a malicious prosecution lawsuit?
·
The original plaintiff did not
initiate the original lawsuit.
·
The original lawsuit had probable
cause.
·
The original lawsuit was initiated
without malice.
·
The current plaintiff suffered
injury because of the original lawsuit.
14. In which case will a limited
partner in a limited partnership have liability that extends beyond the
contributions made by him or her?
·
When the limited partner provides
personal guarantee for a loan taken by the
partnership
·
When one of the general partners
withdraws from the limited partnership
·
When the limited partnership is
involved in a tort and needs to pay compensation as ordered by the
court
·
When the limited partnership incurs
severe losses
15. Identify a difference between
publicly held and closely held
corporations.
·
Shareholders of publicly held
corporations participate in management activities; shareholders of closely held
corporations do not.
·
Closely held corporations are large;
publicly held corporations are comparatively
smaller.
·
Publicly held corporations have many
shareholders; closely held corporations have fewer
shareholders.
·
Closely held corporations trade
their shares on organized security markets; publicly held corporations do not.
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16. Identify a difference between
treasury shares and outstanding shares in a
corporation.
·
Outstanding shares are the ones that
are repurchased by the corporation; treasury shares are
not.
·
Outstanding shares have the right to
vote; treasury shares do not.
·
Treasury shares are issued by the
corporation; outstanding shares are
not.
·
Treasury shares cannot be reissued;
outstanding shares can be.
17. What is true about the scope of
Good Samaritan laws in the context of special negligence
doctrines?
·
They apply to professionals like
lawyers and architects.
·
They protect professionals from
liability for their ordinary and gross negligence.
·
They apply to medical health
professionals.
·
They protect manufacturers and
distributors from product liability.
18. Quenchers Inc., a heath drink
manufacturer, launches a new product called Sprint. The packaging of this drink
also includes a statement that says "Fifty times healthier than
Green." Green is a product of Booster Inc., another health drink
manufacturer. Quenchers has no research data to back this claim. What type of
unfair business practice is illustrated in the
scenario?
·
Deceptive
advertising
·
Copyright
infringement
·
Bait and
switch
·
Restraint of trade
Find the quiz answers here LAW 531 Knowledge check
19. What statement is true about the
powers of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the context of drug
regulation?
·
The FDA can only regulate the
manufacture of prescription drugs.
·
The FDA's powers are restricted to
the regulation of the sale of drugs.
·
The FDA is not authorized to revoke
licenses of drugs that are in use.
·
The FDA has the authority to license
new drugs.
20. Choose the correct statement
about limited liability partnerships (LLPs).
·
They should have one or more general
partners personally liable for the debts and obligations of the
partnerships.
·
They do not get flow-through tax
benefits.
·
They cannot have partners who are
professionals such as doctors or lawyers.
·
They are created by state and not
federal laws.
21. Identify an accurate statement
about the Treaty Clause in the context of the United States and foreign
affairs.
·
It states that a treaty can be
formed when one-third of Senate members agree to
it.
·
It states that state governments can
pass laws that contradict treaties signed by the federal government.
·
It states that the U.S. president is
the agent of the United States in dealing with foreign
nations.
·
It states that local state
governments can also enter into treaties with foreign nations.
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22. What is true of the Economic
Espionage Act?
·
It criminalizes the theft of trade
secrets through the use of the Internet.
·
It criminalizes the discovery of
trade secrets through reverse engineering.
·
It provides federal protection
exclusively to trademarks and service marks.
·
It relieves business owners of the
obligation to protect their intellectual property.
23. What is true of the necessary
elements of an environmental impact statement (EIS) according to the National
Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)?
·
It must mention the environmentalist
parties that challenged the proposed action in
court.
·
It must contain a cost-benefit
analysis of the proposed federal action and alternative actions.
·
It must not refer to the expert
opinions of engineers, geologists, or other professionals.
·
It must not mention or describe any
alternate actions to the proposed federal action.
24. Which statement is true about the
different types of agency
relationships?
·
An employer-employee relationship
involves complete transfer of authority to the
employee.
·
A principal-agent relationship
involves hiring an employee to enter into contracts on behalf of the principal.
·
A principal-agent relationship
involves assigning an employee a specific physical task to
perform.
·
An employer-employee relationship
involves hiring an employee to act as an agent of the employer.
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25. Identify an accurate statement
about the Equal Pay Act.
·
The act states that the employer can
lower the wages of employees to remedy a wage
disparity.
·
The act states that wages may differ
when shift differences are involved.
·
The act exclusively covers federal
workers.
·
The act does not encompass
private-sector employees.
26. What is true of a vertical
merger?
·
It combines the operations of two
manufacturers in the same
market.
·
It creates increased market
share.
·
It combines the businesses of a
supplier and a customer.
·
It combines the operations of
suppliers in the same market.
27. Tanya and Amit, married for five
years, have filed for divorce. They are being assisted by Rebecca in reaching a
settlement. Rebecca is a retired judge, who meets with them together, and
individually, to discuss the strengths and weaknesses of each of their cases.
Which alternative dispute resolution method does this scenario best
exemplify?
·
Mini-trial
·
Judicial
referee
·
Mediation
·
Arbitration
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28. What is true about Jewish
law?
·
It is based on the teachings in the
Vedas.
·
It is not followed anymore in Jewish
home countries.
·
It includes rules for religious and
political aspects of life.
·
It excludes doctrines related to
marriage and inheritance.
29. How does the Marine Protection,
Research, and Sanctuaries Act, enacted in 1972, extend environmental protection
to the oceans?
·
By requiring the Environmental
Protection Agency (EPA) to create a list of toxic air pollutants
·
By removing marine sanctuaries in
ocean waters
·
By requiring industries to obtain a
permit for dumping wastes into ocean waters
·
By requiring industries to incur the
clean up costs for contaminations caused by them
30. Which statement about personal
property is true?
·
It exclusively refers to tangible
property.
·
It can be owned only by one
person.
·
It refers to property that is
movable.
·
It exclusively encompasses real
estate property.
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31. What is the primary function of
the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
·
To create free trade zones for
member countries and thereby bring them
together
·
To provide long-term loans to
developing countries
·
To ensure smooth and free trade flow
among member countries by settling disputes
·
To promote international fiscal
stability by providing temporary monetary assistance to member countries
32. What is a disadvantage of a sole
proprietorship?
·
The owner has to take up legal
responsibility for any torts committed in the business.
·
The process of forming a sole
proprietorship involves many costs.
·
The sole proprietorship is difficult
to dissolve as many shareholders are
involved.
·
The owner is required to present
several legal documents to obtain federal approval to start the business.
33. What must a complainant prove in
a case of disparate-treatment
discrimination?
·
The employer cited behavioral
reasons for rejecting the
complainant.
·
The employer rejected the
complainant despite the latter having the required
qualifications.
·
The employer sought applications
from people with qualifications better than the
complainant's.
·
The employer rejected others with
the same qualifications.
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34. What is true about Title VII of
the Civil Rights Act of 1964 in the context of gender
discrimination?
·
It covers discrimination based on
sexual orientation.
·
It does not prohibit discrimination
based on pregnancy-related medical
conditions.
·
It covers only
women.
·
It excludes sexual harassment.
35. What is a gift causa mortis?
·
A gift that is made in anticipation
of theft.
·
A gift that cannot be
revoked.
·
A gift that is made in anticipation
of death.
·
A gift that is made involuntarily.
36. Identify a difference between
tenancy by the entirety and community property as forms of concurrent
ownership.
·
Tenancy by the entirety allows a
spouse to transfer his or her interest without the other spouse's consent;
community property does not.
·
Tenancy by the entirety does not
grant the rights of survivorship; community property
does.
·
Tenancy by the entirety passes the
deceased person's complete property to the survivor; community property passes
only one-half of the property to the survivor.
·
Tenancy by the entirety applies to
married couples; community property does not apply to married couples.
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37. Waves, Shimmer, and Mist are
manufacturers and sellers of beauty products. Each of these companies
independently decides not to sell its products to Redefine, a cosmetic
retailer. Which form of vertical restraint does this scenario best
exemplify?
·
Group parallelism
·
Conscious
parallelism
·
Malicious
boycott
·
Product boycott
38. Identify the true statement
about the rights and duties of partners in a general
partnership.
·
A partner in a general partnership
has the right to have the transactions of another partner reviewed by a
court.
·
A partner in a general partnership
has the right to compete with the partnership by opening another business by
himself or herself.
·
A partner in a general partnership
has the right to sue the partnership or another partner at
law.
·
A partner in a general partnership
has the right to use the facilities of the business for personal use.
39. Which statement about strict
liability is true?
·
It does not protect bystanders and
other individuals who were affected by defective products.
·
It does not require a contract to be
present between the plaintiff and the
defendant.
·
It places liability only on
manufacturers and not
sellers.
·
It holds the defendant liable only
to the purchaser of a defective product.
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40. What is the scope of coverage of
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
·
It applies to state and local
governments.
·
It applies to labor unions with five
or more members.
·
It applies to employers with five or
more employees.
·
It applies to Native American
tribes.
41. Identify an accurate statement
about Hindu Law.
·
It is based on the teachings of the
Torah.
·
It currently encompasses doctrines
related to
marriage.
·
It includes teachings of
rabbis.
·
It is currently a combination of
classical Hindu law and common law.
42. Felicia Carter, a famous singer,
finds her poster on a billboard of a music academy. Felicia sues the academy
because it did not inform her or seek permission to use her poster. What kind
of intentional tort does this scenario best exemplify?
·
Disparagement
·
Appropriation
·
Invasion of the right to
privacy
·
Defamation of character
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43. Identify a difference between
the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World
Bank.
·
The IMF is funded by contributions
of developed countries; the World Bank is funded by developing countries.
·
The IMF has its headquarters in
Washington, DC; the World Bank in The Hague, the Netherlands.
·
The IMF has more than 180 member
countries; the World Bank has 60 member
countries.
·
The IMF grants short-term loans to
member countries; the World Bank grants long-term loans to developing
countries.
44. Tracy goes to a shopping mall,
and she unknowingly drops her identity card. After a while, she realizes that
the card is missing and starts looking for it. The card is found by Ben who is
also at the mall. Ben decides to contact Tracy and return her identity card. In
this scenario, what kind of property would Tracy's identity card
be?
·
Abandoned
property
·
Real
property
·
Mislaid
property
·
Lost property
45. Which scenario best exemplifies
race discrimination?
·
Sarah and Sandeep apply for the same
post at Diadem Inc. The recruiter selects Sandeep because he has more work
experience than Sarah.
·
Sarah and Sandeep apply for the same
post at Diadem Inc. The recruiter selects Sarah because she has better
qualifications and her resume is more impressive.
·
Sarah and Sandeep apply for the same
post at Diadem Inc. The recruiter selects Sarah because Sarah is of the same
ethnic group as the recruiter.
·
Sarah and Sandeep apply for the same
post at Diadem Inc. The recruiter selects Sandeep because he believes that a
man would suit the job role better.
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46. Identify a characteristic of an
implied agency.
·
The agency relationship can be
deemed void only with the consent of both the parties.
·
The agreement of the agency
relationship is in written form.
·
The agency relationship is formed
after both the parties have agreed upon common
terms.
·
The degree of authority of an agent
is defined by the circumstances and facts of a particular scenario.
47. Identify an accurate statement
about the World Trade Organization
(WTO).
·
It has 180 member
nations.
·
It has its headquarters in
Washington, DC.
·
It has a seven-member appellate body
that hears appeals.
·
It has a five-member panel that
hears trade disputes.
48. Identify the true statement about
the ownership of mislaid
property.
·
The finder of mislaid property gets
complete ownership of the property against the owner of the premises in which
the property was mislaid.
·
The original owner cannot reclaim
the ownership of mislaid property if it has been in the possession of someone
else.
·
The finder of mislaid property can
legally acquire partial ownership of the property from the original
owner.
·
The owner of the region where the
property was mislaid is automatically obliged to take care of the property
until the rightful owner finds it.
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49. What is true about a quitclaim
deed
It is most frequently used among
sellers and buyers.
·
It provides maximum protection to
the grantee as it involves complete transfer of ownership to him or her.
·
It does not include an affirmation
that the grantor owns the property that is being transferred.
·
It is exclusively used during the
sale of personal property and cannot be used during the sale of real property.
50. What is true of the Americans
with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
·
An employer cannot conduct medical
examinations of an employee post employment.
·
An employer can ask a job applicant
about the existence, nature, and severity of his or her
disability.
·
An employer can inquire about a job
applicant's ability to perform job-related functions in terms of health.
·
An employer can conduct
preemployment medical examinations.
51. Dany purchases eye drops
manufactured by a pharmaceutical company. She unknowingly leaves the bottle of
eye drops on her living room table. Dany's two-year-old daughter finds the
bottle and opens it easily. Dany realizes that the seal on the bottle was not
strong enough and was removed far too easily. What type of product defect is
illustrated in the scenario?
·
Inadequate
instructions
·
Failure to
warn
·
Defect in
packaging
·
Defect in manufacture
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52. Tanvi was the breaching party in
a breach of contract lawsuit. The court ordered Tanvi to pay a certain amount
of damages to the plaintiff. However, Tanvi refused to pay these damages. The
court has now issued a writ that orders the county sheriff to seize and auction
the property owned by Tanvi to pay the damages owed to the plaintiff. In this
scenario, what kind of writ has been issued in the context of remedies for a
breach of contract?
·
Writ of attachment
·
Writ of
quo-warranto
·
Writ of garnishment
·
Writ of payment
53. What is true of the Sherman
Act?
·
It expressly outlaws
monopolies.
·
It does not include criminal
sanctions.
·
It excludes predatory
pricing.
·
It prohibits illegal restraints of
trade.
54. The country of Tahomia entered
into an agreement with the federal government of Batang to reduce trade
barriers between the two countries. However, one state in Tahomia has certain
laws that prohibit the sale of Batang-made products. According to the
constitution of Tahomia, such rules made by the state will automatically become
invalid. This scenario closely resembles which clause of the U.S.
Constitution?
·
The Convention
Clause
·
The Treaty Clause
·
The Bilateral Treaty
Clause
·
The Foreign Clause
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55. Identify the true statement
about the formation of a limited partnership.
·
The contributions made by the
partners in a limited partnership do not have to be
disclosed.
·
Limited partnerships can be formed
informally among general and limited
partners.
·
Limited partnerships are required to
disclose the nature of their business to legal
entities.
·
The name of a limited partnership
should always include the surname of the limited partner.
56. Tamara is a content developer at
Moon Loop Inc., a content management company. Her job profile involves
describing diagrams and flowcharts. She is not allowed to make decisions or
sign agreements on behalf of the company. In this scenario, what agency
relationship most likely exists between Tamara and Moon Loop
Inc.?
·
Principal-employer
relationship
·
Principal-agent
relationship
·
Employee-agent
relationship
·
Employer-employee relationship
57. What is true of the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) as a United Nations
agency?
·
It has its headquarters in The
Hague, the
Netherlands.
·
It does not provide loans to member
countries.
·
It is funded by contributions of
member countries.
·
It was established before the Great
Depression of the 1930s.
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58. StacyMiller Publishers and
Scriblotts are two of the largest publishing houses in Paramond. They decide to
merge for mutual benefit. What kind of merger does this scenario best
exemplify?
·
Horizontal merger
·
Vertical
merger
·
Upward
merger
·
Conglomerate Merger
59. Cetria Inc. has been contracted
to manufacture fighter jets for the U.S. Army, following specific guidelines
and requirements. After a week of flying the first set of delivered jets, the
jets start deteriorating and even cause injuries to the fighter pilots.
However, Cetria cannot be held liable for these defects and injuries. What
defense is most likely to protect Cetria from
liability?
·
Government contractor
defense
·
Generally known danger
defense
·
Assumption of risk
defense
·
Supervening event defense
60. Identify an accurate statement
about shareholders.
·
They elect the board of directors of
a corporation.
·
They handle the daily operations of
a corporation.
·
They have several management duties.
·
They are agents of a corporation
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